[JEE Advanced 2004] If $\binom{n-1}r=(k^2-3)\binom n{r+1}$, then $k$ belongs to
If $\binom{n-1}r=(k^2-3)\binom n{r+1}$, then $k$ belongs to
(a) $(-\infty,-2]$
(b) $[2,\infty)$
(c) $[-3,3]$
(d) $(\sqrt3,2]$
1 Answer
VAVidaara Admin
✓ Vidaara Team
✓ Accepted
· 1mo ago
▲ 0
Correct answer: (d) $(\sqrt3,2]$
$\frac{\binom{n-1}r}{\binom n{r+1}}=k^2-3\in(0,1]$ forces $k^2\in(3,4]$, i.e. $k\in(\sqrt3,2]$.
JEE Advanced 2004 · Binomial Theorem — verified solution by the Vidaara Team.
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