JEE PYQ

[JEE Main 2004] if z x iy and z 1 3 p iq then 1 p 2

VAVidaara Admin Asked 2d ago 1 views 1 answer

If $z=x-iy$ and $z^{1/3}=p+iq$, then $\dfrac{1}{p^2+q^2}\left(\dfrac xp+\dfrac yq\right)$ equals

(a) $-2$
(b) $-1$
(c) $2$
(d) $1$

1 Answer

VAVidaara Admin ✓ Vidaara Team ✓ Accepted · 2d ago ▲ 0

Correct answer: (a) $-2$

$z=(p+iq)^3$ gives $x=p^3-3pq^2,\ y=q^3-3p^2q$, so $\frac xp+\frac yq=-2(p^2+q^2)$; dividing gives $-2$.

JEE Main 2004 · Complex Numbers — verified solution by the Vidaara Team.

Log in to post your own answer or join the discussion.

Discussion (0)

No comments yet — start the discussion.

← Back to all questions