UPSC Prelims — General Studies Paper I Mock (Free, Timed)

Question 1Preamble

Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India: 1. The Preamble was enacted after the rest of the Constitution had been finalised, so as to conform to it. 2. The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. 3. The Preamble can be amended under Article 368. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The Preamble was adopted last so it would accord with the Constitution as adopted. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity'. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and the 42nd Amendment itself, the Supreme Court held the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, subject to the basic structure.

Question 2Fundamental Rights

Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to citizens of India and not to foreigners?

Solution: Article 19 freedoms (including speech and expression) are available only to citizens. Articles 14, 21 and 22 are available to all persons, including foreigners, within Indian territory.

Question 3Directive Principles

Consider the following provisions: 1. Uniform Civil Code 2. Organisation of village panchayats 3. Promotion of international peace and security 4. Free and compulsory education for children up to age fourteen How many of the above are Directive Principles of State Policy as originally found in Part IV?

Solution: All four were Directive Principles. The UCC (Art 44), village panchayats (Art 40) and international peace (Art 51) remain DPSPs. Free and compulsory education up to 14 was originally Art 45 (a DPSP); the 86th Amendment later inserted Art 21A making it a Fundamental Right while recasting Art 45.

Question 4Parliament

Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha: 1. It is not subject to dissolution and one-third of its members retire every second year. 2. A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. 3. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to authorise Parliament to make laws on a State List subject in the national interest. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house with one-third retiring every two years. Money bills (Art 110) can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may pass a resolution (by two-thirds present and voting) empowering Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.

Question 5President

With reference to the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. 2. The value of the vote of an MLA varies from State to State. 3. A person to be eligible for election as President must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The electoral college includes elected MPs and elected MLAs of States plus Delhi and Puducherry (nominated members are excluded). The value of an MLA's vote depends on the State's population (1971 census) and number of elected members, so it varies. Article 58 requires the candidate to be qualified for election to the Lok Sabha.

Question 6Judiciary

Consider the following writs: 1. Habeas Corpus 2. Mandamus 3. Quo Warranto Which of the above can be issued against a private individual?

Solution: Only Habeas Corpus can be issued against both public authorities and private individuals (e.g., illegal private detention). Mandamus lies only against public authorities to perform a public duty, and Quo Warranto applies only to public offices of a substantive character.

Question 7Federalism / Emergency

During the operation of a National Emergency under Article 352, which one of the following Fundamental Rights can never be suspended?

Solution: The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 provided that Articles 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. Article 19 stands automatically suspended only when the emergency is declared on grounds of war or external aggression.

Question 8Constitutional Bodies

Consider the following statements about the Election Commission of India: 1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 324. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 3. The other Election Commissioners can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The ECI is established under Article 324. The CEC enjoys security of tenure and can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge (by Parliament for proved misbehaviour or incapacity). Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC.

Question 9Panchayati Raj

Consider the following statements regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: 1. It added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. 2. Reservation of not less than one-third of seats for women is a mandatory provision. 3. It is applicable to the Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas referred to in Article 244 without any modification. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 73rd Amendment added Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule (29 subjects) and mandates reservation of at least one-third seats for women. Statement 3 is wrong: it did not automatically apply to Scheduled and Tribal Areas; their extension was made through the separate PESA Act, 1996.

Question 10Amendment / Basic Structure

The doctrine of 'basic structure' of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court for the first time in which one of the following cases?

Solution: The basic structure doctrine was first laid down in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), which held that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution so as to destroy its basic structure. Minerva Mills (1980) later reinforced it; Golaknath (1967) had instead held that Fundamental Rights could not be amended.

Question 11Centre-State Relations

With reference to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following subjects: 1. Public health and sanitation 2. Criminal law and criminal procedure 3. Forests Which of the above are in the Concurrent List?

Solution: Criminal law/criminal procedure and Forests are in the Concurrent List (Forests was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976). 'Public health and sanitation' is a State List subject. Hence 2 and 3 only.

Question 12Fundamental Duties

Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties: 1. They were added to the Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. 2. The duty to provide opportunities for education to one's child between the ages of six and fourteen years was part of the original list inserted in 1976. 3. Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens and do not extend to foreigners. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) were added by the 42nd Amendment on the Swaran Singh Committee's recommendation and apply only to citizens. Statement 2 is wrong: the education-of-children duty was the 11th duty added later by the 86th Amendment (2002), not part of the original ten.

Question 13Governor

Which one of the following statements about the Governor of a State is NOT correct?

Solution: The statement that the Governor's salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India is incorrect; the Governor's emoluments and allowances are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State. The other three statements are correct under Articles 153–158.

Question 14Parliamentary Procedure

Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill: 1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill or not. 2. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within fourteen days with or without recommendations. 3. The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration of the Houses. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Speaker's certification on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final (Art 110), and the Rajya Sabha must return it within 14 days. Statement 3 is wrong: the President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration—it can only be assented to or withheld, since it is introduced with the President's prior recommendation.

Question 15Statutory Bodies

Which one of the following is a statutory body and NOT a constitutional body?

Solution: The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body created under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. The Finance Commission (Art 280), the National Commission for SCs (Art 338) and the UPSC (Art 315) are all constitutional bodies.

Question 16Citizenship

Consider the following statements about citizenship under the Constitution and the Citizenship Act, 1955: 1. The Constitution provides for both single citizenship and a uniform citizenship for the whole of India. 2. India permits dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin. 3. Citizenship is a subject in the Union List. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. India follows single citizenship, and citizenship/naturalisation/aliens is in the Union List. Statement 2 is wrong: India does not allow dual citizenship; the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) status is not full dual citizenship and confers no voting or office-holding rights.

Question 17Anti-Defection

With reference to the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law), consider the following statements: 1. It was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. 2. The decision on disqualification on the ground of defection is made by the President or Governor. 3. The provision for exemption in case of a 'split' in a party was deleted by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985), and the one-third 'split' exemption was removed by the 91st Amendment (2003), leaving only the two-thirds 'merger' exemption. Statement 2 is wrong: the decision is taken by the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman), not the President or Governor.

Question 18CAG

Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: 1. The CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of the States. 2. The CAG submits audit reports relating to the accounts of the Union directly to Parliament. 3. The CAG is the guardian of the public purse and controls the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The CAG audits expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and the States and submits Union audit reports to the President, who lays them before Parliament. Statement 3 is wrong: unlike the British model, India's CAG is only an auditor (Comptroller of accounts after spending); it does not control the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund—no money can be drawn without legislative authorisation, but the CAG has no role at that issuing stage.

Question 19Indus Valley Civilisation

Consider the following statements about the Harappan (Indus Valley) Civilisation: 1. The Great Bath has been found at the site of Mohenjodaro. 2. Evidence of a ploughed field has been found at Kalibangan. 3. A dockyard has been discovered at Lothal. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The Great Bath is at Mohenjodaro, the earliest evidence of a ploughed field comes from Kalibangan, and the dockyard (a tidal harbour) is at Lothal in Gujarat.

Question 20Vedic Period

With reference to the Vedic literature, which one of the following is correctly matched?

Solution: The Gayatri Mantra, addressed to the solar deity Savitri, occurs in the Rigveda, the oldest Veda. The Yajurveda contains sacrificial formulae (prose and verse), the Samaveda contains melodies/hymns mostly drawn from the Rigveda, and the Atharvaveda (charms and spells) is the latest, not the oldest.

Question 21Mauryan Empire

Consider the following statements about Ashoka's inscriptions: 1. Most of Ashoka's edicts are written in the Brahmi script. 2. The bilingual rock inscription using Greek and Aramaic was found at Kandahar. 3. The Major Rock Edict XIII describes the Kalinga war and Ashoka's remorse. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. Most Ashokan edicts are in Brahmi; the Kandahar inscription is bilingual in Greek and Aramaic; and Major Rock Edict XIII records the Kalinga war and Ashoka's subsequent remorse and turn to dhamma.

Question 22Gupta Period

Which one of the following is NOT correctly associated with the Gupta period?

Solution: Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana in the 7th century CE, not Chandragupta II of the Gupta age. It was Fa-Hien (Faxian) who visited during Chandragupta II's reign. The other three are correctly associated with the Gupta period.

Question 23Delhi Sultanate

Consider the following statements about Alauddin Khalji: 1. He introduced market control (price regulation) measures in Delhi. 2. He was the first Sultan to introduce the system of measurement of land for revenue assessment. 3. He built the Qutub Minar to commemorate his victories. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Alauddin Khalji introduced famous market/price-control reforms and a system of land measurement (masahat) for revenue assessment. Statement 3 is wrong: the Qutub Minar was begun by Qutb-ud-din Aibak and completed by Iltutmish, not Alauddin.

Question 24Bhakti and Sufi Movements

Consider the following pairs of saints and their associations: 1. Kabir — Nirguna Bhakti tradition 2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu — Krishna devotion in Bengal 3. Mirabai — devotee of Lord Shiva How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Solution: Only two pairs are correct. Kabir belonged to the Nirguna (formless God) tradition, and Chaitanya popularised Krishna devotion in Bengal. The third is wrong: Mirabai was a devotee of Lord Krishna, not Shiva.

Question 25Mughal Empire

With reference to the mansabdari system under the Mughals, consider the following statements: 1. It was introduced by Akbar. 2. The rank 'zat' determined the personal status and salary of the holder. 3. The rank 'sawar' indicated the number of cavalrymen a mansabdar was required to maintain. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. Akbar introduced the mansabdari system. The 'zat' fixed the mansabdar's personal rank and pay, while the 'sawar' indicated the number of horsemen (cavalry) the mansabdar had to maintain.

Question 26Temple Architecture

With reference to Indian temple architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The Nagara style is generally associated with northern India. 2. The Dravida style temple is typically enclosed within a compound wall with a gateway called a gopuram. 3. The Kandariya Mahadeva temple at Khajuraho is built in the Dravida style. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Nagara style is the northern style and Dravida temples in the south are enclosed in compound walls with gopuram gateways. Statement 3 is wrong: the Kandariya Mahadeva temple at Khajuraho is a classic Nagara-style temple, not Dravida.

Question 27Classical Dance

Which one of the following classical dance forms is correctly paired with its State of origin?

Solution: Mohiniyattam originated in Kerala. The others are mismatched: Kuchipudi is from Andhra Pradesh, Sattriya is from Assam, and Odissi is from Odisha.

Question 28Revolt of 1857

Consider the following statements about the Revolt of 1857: 1. The revolt began at Meerut on 10 May 1857. 2. Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed as the symbolic leader at Delhi. 3. After the revolt, the control of India passed from the East India Company to the British Crown. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The revolt broke out at Meerut on 10 May 1857, the rebels declared Bahadur Shah II (Zafar) the symbolic emperor at Delhi, and the Government of India Act 1858 transferred power from the Company to the British Crown.

Question 29Indian National Congress

With reference to the early Indian National Congress, consider the following statements: 1. The first session was held in Bombay in 1885 under W.C. Bonnerjee. 2. A.O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, was associated with its founding. 3. The Surat Split of the Congress occurred in 1907. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The INC's first session was held at Bombay in 1885 with W.C. Bonnerjee as president; A.O. Hume played a key role in its founding; and the Congress split into Moderates and Extremists at the Surat session in 1907.

Question 30Gandhian Movements

Consider the following events of the Indian freedom struggle: 1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Kheda Satyagraha 3. Non-Cooperation Movement 4. Dandi Salt March Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?

Solution: The correct order is Champaran (1917), Kheda (1918), Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) and the Dandi Salt March (1930). Hence 1-2-3-4.

Question 31Socio-Religious Reform

Which one of the following pairs of reformers and organisations is NOT correctly matched?

Solution: Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj, not the Prarthana Samaj (which was founded by Atmaram Pandurang, associated with M.G. Ranade). The other three pairs are correctly matched.

Question 32Buddhism

Consider the following statements about Buddhism: 1. The Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath, an event known as Dharma Chakra Pravartana. 2. The Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under the patronage of Ashoka. 3. The doctrine of the 'middle path' avoids the extremes of severe penance and self-indulgence. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The Buddha's first sermon at Sarnath is called the Dharma Chakra Pravartana (turning of the wheel of law); the Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra under Ashoka; and the Madhyama Pratipada (middle path) avoids both extreme asceticism and indulgence.

Question 33Indian Painting

Consider the following statements about Indian painting: 1. The Ajanta cave paintings depict mainly Jaina themes. 2. The Mughal school of painting reached its zenith under Jahangir. 3. The Kangra school is a notable example of the Pahari style of miniature painting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Mughal painting peaked under Jahangir, a great connoisseur, and the Kangra school is a famous branch of the Pahari miniature tradition. Statement 1 is wrong: the Ajanta paintings depict primarily Buddhist themes (Jataka tales), not Jaina.

Question 34Vijayanagara Empire

With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements: 1. It was founded by Harihara and Bukka of the Sangama dynasty. 2. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty. 3. The traveller Domingo Paes visited Vijayanagara during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. Vijayanagara was founded in 1336 by Harihara and Bukka (Sangama dynasty); Krishnadeva Raya, its greatest ruler, belonged to the Tuluva dynasty; and the Portuguese traveller Domingo Paes visited during his reign.

Question 35Post-Independence India

Consider the following statements about the integration of princely states after independence: 1. The States Department was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel with V.P. Menon as its secretary. 2. The state of Hyderabad was integrated through a police action code-named 'Operation Polo'. 3. Goa was liberated from Portuguese control in 1961. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. Sardar Patel headed the States Department with V.P. Menon as secretary; Hyderabad was integrated through 'Operation Polo' (1948); and Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in December 1961.

Question 36Maurya / Administration

The Arthashastra, an ancient treatise on statecraft and economic policy, is attributed to which one of the following?

Solution: The Arthashastra is attributed to Kautilya (also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta), the minister of Chandragupta Maurya. Megasthenes wrote the Indica, Patanjali authored the Mahabhashya/Yoga Sutras, and Banabhatta wrote the Harshacharita.

Question 37Geomorphology

Consider the following statements regarding the formation of fold mountains: 1. They are formed by the compressional forces acting on sedimentary rocks accumulated in geosynclines. 2. The Himalayas, Alps and Andes are examples of fold mountains. 3. They are always older than block mountains formed by faulting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Fold mountains form from compression of sediments deposited in geosynclines; the Himalayas, Alps and Andes are classic examples. Statement 3 is wrong because fold mountains are not necessarily older than block mountains; relative age depends on the specific orogeny, not the mountain type.

Question 38Climatology

The phenomenon of 'inversion of temperature' (where temperature increases with altitude instead of decreasing) is most likely to occur under which of the following conditions?

Solution: Temperature inversion occurs on clear, calm, long winter nights when rapid terrestrial radiation cools the ground and the air just above it, while air higher up remains warmer. Winds and clouds inhibit inversion by mixing the air or trapping heat.

Question 39Oceanography

With reference to ocean currents, consider the following pairs: 1. Gulf Stream - warm current of the North Atlantic. 2. Humboldt (Peru) Current - cold current off the western coast of South America. 3. Kuroshio Current - cold current of the North Pacific. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution: The Gulf Stream is a warm current and the Humboldt (Peru) Current is a cold current - both correct. The Kuroshio Current is a WARM current of the North Pacific (the Oyashio is the cold one), so pair 3 is wrong. Hence only two pairs are correct.

Question 40Indian Physiography

Consider the following statements about the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats: 1. The Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed through passes only. 2. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. 3. Anaimudi, the highest peak of peninsular India, lies in the Eastern Ghats. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: The Western Ghats are continuous (crossed via passes like Thal, Bhor, Pal Ghats), and the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous, dissected by east-flowing rivers. Statement 3 is wrong - Anaimudi (2,695 m) lies in the Western Ghats (Anaimalai Hills), not the Eastern Ghats.

Question 41Indian Rivers

Which one of the following rivers does NOT originate from the Western Ghats?

Solution: The Krishna (Mahabaleshwar), Godavari (Trimbak/Nasik) and Kaveri (Talakaveri/Brahmagiri) all rise in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the highlands of Chhattisgarh (near Sihawa), not the Western Ghats.

Question 42Indian Monsoon

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian monsoon: 1. The Tamil Nadu coast receives most of its rainfall during the northeast (retreating) monsoon. 2. The 'burst' of the monsoon is associated with the sudden onset of the southwest monsoon over Kerala. 3. El Nino conditions are generally associated with weaker than normal Indian monsoon rainfall. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. Tamil Nadu gets most rain from the retreating (NE) monsoon (Oct-Dec); the 'burst' refers to the sudden, vigorous onset of the SW monsoon over Kerala in early June; and El Nino (warming of the equatorial Pacific) is generally linked to deficient Indian monsoon rainfall.

Question 43Indian Soils

With reference to soils of India, consider the following statements: 1. Black (regur) soil is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium and potash but poor in nitrogen and phosphorus. 2. Laterite soil forms under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods. 3. Alluvial soils cover the largest area of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three statements are correct. Black soil is rich in lime, magnesia, potash but deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter; laterite forms by leaching under high temperature and alternating wet/dry seasons; and alluvial soils are the most widespread soil type, covering the largest area of India.

Question 44Indian Agriculture

Consider the following crops: 1. Tea 2. Coffee 3. Rubber 4. Cotton. How many of the above are grown primarily on red and laterite/well-drained slopes rather than on black cotton soil?

Solution: Tea, coffee and rubber are plantation crops grown on well-drained, often laterite hill slopes (NE India and Western Ghats). Cotton is the classic crop of black (regur) soil of the Deccan. Hence three of the four grow on red/laterite/well-drained slopes.

Question 45World Geography

The Strait of Hormuz, a strategic chokepoint for global oil transport, connects which of the following water bodies?

Solution: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman (and onward to the Arabian Sea). The Bab-el-Mandeb links the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden, and the Suez Canal links the Mediterranean with the Red Sea.

Question 46World Mapping

Consider the following countries: 1. Kazakhstan 2. Uzbekistan 3. Afghanistan 4. Turkmenistan. How many of the above share a land border with the Caspian Sea coast?

Solution: The five Caspian littoral states are Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran and Azerbaijan. From the list, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan border the Caspian, while Uzbekistan and Afghanistan do not. Hence only two.

Question 47Resources and Industries

With reference to the iron and steel industry in India, the largest reserves of high-grade haematite iron ore are found in which of the following regions?

Solution: Although iron ore occurs in all these belts, the largest high-grade haematite reserves are concentrated in the Singhbhum (Jharkhand) and Odisha (Keonjhar, Mayurbhanj, Sundargarh) belt, which forms the backbone of India's haematite resources.

Question 48Physical Geography

Coral reefs require specific environmental conditions to flourish. Which of the following is NOT favourable for coral reef growth?

Solution: Corals need warm (about 20-25 C), clear, shallow, well-oxygenated water with normal marine salinity and sunlight for their symbiotic zooxanthellae. Excessively high salinity (hypersaline conditions) and heavy sediment are detrimental to coral growth.

Question 49Indian Geography

Consider the following passes and their locations: 1. Nathu La - Sikkim 2. Zoji La - Jammu & Kashmir/Ladakh 3. Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh 4. Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution: All four pairs are correct. Nathu La is in Sikkim, Zoji La connects Srinagar with Leh (J&K/Ladakh), Shipki La is in Himachal Pradesh (Sutlej enters India here), and Bomdi La is in Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 50Climatology

The 'Doldrums' belt near the equator is best characterised by which of the following?

Solution: The Doldrums, located in the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) near the equator, is a low-pressure belt where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge, producing calm conditions, light variable winds and frequent convectional rain.

Question 51Indian Geography

Which one of the following correctly lists rivers that flow into the Arabian Sea?

Solution: The Narmada, Tapi and Mahi are west-flowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea (Gulf of Khambhat). The other options list east-flowing rivers that empty into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 52Money & Banking - Monetary Policy

Consider the following actions by the Reserve Bank of India: (1) Cut in the Cash Reserve Ratio (2) Sale of government securities in the open market (3) Reduction in the repo rate. Which of these actions tend to increase the money supply in the economy?

Solution: Cutting CRR releases more lendable funds to banks, and reducing the repo rate makes borrowing cheaper, both expanding money supply. Selling government securities (OMO sale) absorbs liquidity and contracts money supply, so statement 2 reduces it.

Question 53Money & Banking - Policy Rates

With reference to the repo rate and the reverse repo rate, consider the following statements: (1) The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks against securities. (2) An increase in the reverse repo rate encourages banks to park more funds with the RBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends to banks against eligible securities; a higher reverse repo rate makes parking funds with the RBI more attractive, reducing funds available for lending. Both statements are correct.

Question 54National Income

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at market price and Net National Product (NNP) at factor cost?

Solution: To move from GDP at market price to NNP at factor cost: subtract depreciation (to make it 'Net'), add net factor income from abroad (to make it 'National'), and subtract net indirect taxes i.e. indirect taxes minus subsidies (to convert market price to factor cost).

Question 55Taxation - GST

Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India: (1) It is a destination-based consumption tax. (2) The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. (3) Petroleum crude, diesel, and petrol have been brought fully under GST. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: GST is a destination-based (consumption) tax accruing to the consuming state, and the GST Council (Article 279A) is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Petroleum crude, diesel, petrol, natural gas and ATF are constitutionally within GST but are currently kept outside its levy, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 56Taxation - Direct vs Indirect

Which one of the following is a direct tax in India?

Solution: Corporation tax is a direct tax levied on company profits, where the incidence and impact fall on the same entity. GST, customs duty and excise duty are indirect taxes whose burden can be shifted to the consumer.

Question 57Fiscal Policy - Deficits

The 'fiscal deficit' of the Government of India is best defined as:

Solution: Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure - Total receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the total borrowing requirement of the government. Revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts is the revenue deficit.

Question 58Inflation

Consider the following statements about inflation in India: (1) The RBI's flexible inflation targeting framework targets Consumer Price Index (Combined) inflation. (2) The medium-term inflation target is 4 percent with a tolerance band of plus or minus 2 percent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Under the flexible inflation targeting framework adopted in 2016, the RBI targets CPI (Combined) inflation, with a medium-term target of 4 percent and a tolerance band of 2 to 6 percent (4 plus or minus 2). Both statements are correct.

Question 59Planning - NITI Aayog

With reference to the NITI Aayog, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Solution: Unlike the erstwhile Planning Commission, NITI Aayog does not allocate funds; it is an advisory think tank. It was set up in 2015 with the PM as ex-officio Chairperson and promotes cooperative federalism, so the other statements are correct.

Question 60External Sector - BoP

In the context of India's Balance of Payments, the 'current account' includes which of the following? (1) Merchandise trade in goods (2) Net invisibles such as services and remittances (3) Foreign direct investment inflows. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: The current account covers trade in goods (merchandise), services, income, and current transfers like remittances (invisibles). Foreign direct investment is a capital flow recorded under the capital and financial account, not the current account.

Question 61Agriculture - MSP

Consider the following statements regarding the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India: (1) MSP is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). (2) The final MSP is announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: The CACP, an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture, recommends MSPs, and these are approved and announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. Both statements are correct.

Question 62Financial Inclusion

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is primarily aimed at:

Solution: PMJDY, launched in 2014, is a national mission for financial inclusion, providing access to basic savings accounts, remittances, credit, insurance and pension to the unbanked. Crop insurance is PMFBY and rural employment is MGNREGA.

Question 63Money & Banking - SLR

The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requires commercial banks in India to maintain a percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in which of the following forms? (1) Cash (2) Gold (3) Approved government securities. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution: SLR can be maintained in the form of cash, gold, and RBI-approved securities (mainly government securities), held by the bank itself. This is distinct from CRR, which must be kept as cash reserves with the RBI.

Question 64Poverty & Unemployment

The type of unemployment that arises when the marginal productivity of additional workers in an activity is zero, so removing them does not reduce output, is called:

Solution: Disguised unemployment, common in Indian agriculture, occurs when more people are engaged than required and the marginal product of extra workers is effectively zero. Frictional is transitional job search, cyclical is demand-driven, and structural arises from skill or industry mismatch.

Question 65External Sector - Forex

Consider the following components of India's foreign exchange reserves: (1) Foreign currency assets (2) Gold (3) Special Drawing Rights (4) Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF. How many of the above are part of the foreign exchange reserves as reported by the RBI?

Solution: India's foreign exchange reserves comprise four components: Foreign Currency Assets, Gold, SDRs (allocated by the IMF), and the Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF. All four are included.

Question 66Financial Markets

With reference to capital and money markets in India, consider the following statements: (1) Treasury Bills are instruments of the money market. (2) Treasury Bills are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India. (3) Treasury Bills are issued at a discount and redeemed at face value, carrying no separate coupon interest. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Treasury Bills are short-term (up to 364 days) money market instruments issued by the RBI on behalf of the Government of India. They are zero-coupon securities sold at a discount and redeemed at face value, the difference being the investor's return. All three statements are correct.

Question 67Schemes - Food Security

The National Food Security Act, 2013 provides for subsidised foodgrains to which proportion of the population?

Solution: The NFSA, 2013 covers up to 75 percent of the rural population and up to 50 percent of the urban population, amounting to about two-thirds of the country's population, under the Targeted Public Distribution System.

Question 68Ecology and Ecosystems

Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids: 1. The pyramid of energy is always upright. 2. The pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright. 3. The pyramid of biomass in an ocean is generally inverted. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The energy pyramid is always upright because energy is lost at each trophic level (10% law). A grassland pyramid of numbers is upright, and the oceanic biomass pyramid is typically inverted because the phytoplankton (producers) have lower standing biomass than the consumers at a given time.

Question 69Biodiversity Conservation

With reference to the IUCN Red List, the categories in order of increasing threat of extinction are:

Solution: On the IUCN Red List, the 'threatened' categories in order of increasing extinction risk are Vulnerable, then Endangered, then Critically Endangered (followed by Extinct in the Wild and Extinct). Vulnerable is the least threatened of the three.

Question 70Biodiversity Hotspots

Consider the following global biodiversity hotspots: 1. The Himalaya 2. Indo-Burma 3. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka 4. Sundaland. How many of the above extend into Indian territory?

Solution: India is part of all four of these biodiversity hotspots. The Himalaya, Indo-Burma and the Western Ghats-Sri Lanka are well known, while Sundaland extends into India through the Nicobar Islands. Hence all four extend into Indian territory.

Question 71CITES

With reference to CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species), consider the following statements: 1. Species listed in Appendix I are threatened with extinction and their commercial international trade is generally prohibited. 2. CITES is a legally binding treaty on its parties. 3. CITES is administered with the support of the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. CITES Appendix I species are those threatened with extinction, with commercial trade essentially banned; the Convention is legally binding on parties (though it does not replace national laws); and its Secretariat is administered under UNEP, based in Geneva.

Question 72Protected Areas

Consider the following statements distinguishing National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries in India: 1. In a National Park, no grazing or private tenurial rights are permitted. 2. A Wildlife Sanctuary can be upgraded to a National Park. 3. Boundaries of both are fixed and notified only by the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct - National Parks prohibit grazing and private rights, and a sanctuary can be upgraded to a park. Statement 3 is wrong: National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are notified by the State Government (under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972), not the Centre.

Question 73Biosphere Reserves

With reference to a Biosphere Reserve, the zone where no human activity is allowed and which is legally protected is called the:

Solution: A Biosphere Reserve has three zones: the Core zone (legally protected, no human activity, undisturbed), the Buffer zone (limited research and education activities), and the Transition/Manipulation zone (where human settlements and sustainable use occur).

Question 74Climate Change

Consider the following greenhouse gases: 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Methane 3. Nitrous oxide 4. Water vapour. Considering Global Warming Potential (GWP) over a 100-year horizon, which one has the HIGHEST GWP per molecule among the listed long-lived gases?

Solution: Among the listed gases, nitrous oxide (N2O) has the highest 100-year Global Warming Potential (about 265-298 times CO2), higher than methane (about 28-34 times). CO2 is the reference (GWP=1); water vapour, though a major greenhouse gas, is not assigned a conventional GWP as it is short-lived.

Question 75UNFCCC and COP

With reference to the Paris Agreement (2015), consider the following statements: 1. It aims to limit the global average temperature rise to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, pursuing efforts towards 1.5 degrees Celsius. 2. It legally binds every country to specific emission reduction targets set by the UNFCCC Secretariat. 3. It operates on the principle of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Paris Agreement targets keeping warming well below 2 C (pursuing 1.5 C) and works through nationally determined contributions (NDCs). Statement 2 is wrong: targets are self-determined by each country (NDCs), not imposed by the UNFCCC Secretariat.

Question 76Pollution and Bodies

With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements: 1. It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. 2. It is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 3. Appeals against its orders lie with the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 3 are correct - the NGT was set up under the NGT Act, 2010, and appeals against its orders go to the Supreme Court. Statement 2 is wrong: the NGT is NOT bound by the Code of Civil Procedure but is guided by principles of natural justice.

Question 77Ecology

The process of 'eutrophication' in a water body is most directly caused by which of the following?

Solution: Eutrophication is the over-enrichment of a water body with nutrients, chiefly nitrates and phosphates (often from fertiliser runoff and sewage), which triggers excessive algal growth (blooms). The decomposition of this algae depletes dissolved oxygen, harming aquatic life.

Question 78Conservation

Project Tiger and Project Elephant are conservation initiatives in India. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Solution: Statements A, B and C are correct. Statement D is incorrect: while the elephant is the National Heritage Animal, it is listed in Schedule I (not Schedule II) of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, giving it the highest level of protection.

Question 79Wetlands

With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: 1. It is an intergovernmental treaty for the conservation and wise use of wetlands. 2. The 'Montreux Record' is a register of Ramsar sites where ecological character has changed or is likely to change. 3. The Convention is named after a city in Iran. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The Ramsar Convention (1971) promotes conservation and wise use of wetlands; the Montreux Record lists Ramsar sites undergoing adverse ecological change (India's Keoladeo and Loktak have featured on it); and it is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran.

Question 80Climate Change Bodies

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is best described by which of the following?

Solution: The IPCC was established in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the UN Environment Programme (UNEP). It does not conduct original research or set binding limits; it assesses and synthesises existing peer-reviewed scientific literature on climate change for policymakers.

Question 81Biodiversity

The term 'Keystone species' refers to a species that:

Solution: A keystone species exerts an influence on community structure that is disproportionately large relative to its numerical abundance. Its removal can cause dramatic shifts in the ecosystem (e.g., sea otters, the African elephant, certain fig species).

Question 82Conventions

Consider the following pairs of environmental conventions and their primary focus: 1. Montreal Protocol - phasing out ozone-depleting substances. 2. Basel Convention - control of transboundary movement of hazardous wastes. 3. Stockholm Convention - persistent organic pollutants (POPs). How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution: All three pairs are correctly matched. The Montreal Protocol (1987) phases out ozone-depleting substances; the Basel Convention controls transboundary movement of hazardous wastes; and the Stockholm Convention targets persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

Question 83Space - ISRO Missions

Consider the following statements about Chandrayaan-3: (1) It achieved a soft landing near the south polar region of the Moon. (2) Its lander module was named Vikram and the rover was named Pragyan. (3) Unlike Chandrayaan-2, it did not carry an orbiter of its own but used a propulsion module. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Chandrayaan-3 (2023) made India the first country to soft-land near the lunar south pole. Its lander was Vikram and rover Pragyan. It carried a propulsion module instead of a full scientific orbiter, relying on Chandrayaan-2's orbiter for communication. All three statements are correct.

Question 84Space - Launch Vehicles

With reference to ISRO's launch vehicles, which one of the following is primarily used to place heavy communication satellites into Geostationary Transfer Orbit?

Solution: LVM3, formerly GSLV Mk III, is ISRO's heaviest operational launcher, capable of placing about 4 tonnes into Geostationary Transfer Orbit, used for heavy communication satellites and crewed Gaganyaan missions. PSLV mainly serves polar/sun-synchronous orbits and SSLV targets small satellites.

Question 85Biotechnology

The gene-editing tool CRISPR-Cas9 is best described as a technology that:

Solution: CRISPR-Cas9 uses a guide RNA to direct the Cas9 enzyme to a specific DNA sequence, where it cuts the DNA, enabling precise editing. DNA amplification is PCR, copying a whole organism is cloning, and reading the genome is sequencing.

Question 86Health - Vaccines

Consider the following statements about mRNA vaccines: (1) They introduce a piece of genetic instruction that prompts cells to produce a viral protein, triggering an immune response. (2) They alter the recipient's own DNA permanently. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: mRNA vaccines deliver messenger RNA that instructs cells to make a harmless viral antigen (such as the spike protein), prompting an immune response. The mRNA does not enter the nucleus or integrate into the host's DNA, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 87Nuclear Technology

With reference to India's three-stage nuclear power programme, the third stage envisages the use of which of the following as the main fuel?

Solution: India's three-stage programme uses natural uranium in PHWRs (Stage 1), plutonium in fast breeder reactors (Stage 2), and finally thorium with bred Uranium-233 (Stage 3), leveraging India's large thorium reserves.

Question 88IT / Computing

Quantum computers can potentially outperform classical computers for certain problems primarily because qubits can:

Solution: Qubits exploit quantum superposition (existing in combinations of 0 and 1) and entanglement, enabling massive parallelism for specific computations. They do not violate relativity, are not classical binary bits, and require careful conditions to operate.

Question 89Defence Technology

The Agni series of missiles developed by India are best classified as:

Solution: The Agni series comprises surface-to-surface, nuclear-capable ballistic missiles with varying ranges, forming a key part of India's strategic deterrent. BrahMos is a cruise missile, Akash is surface-to-air, and Nag is an anti-tank missile.

Question 90Space - Navigation

NavIC, India's regional navigation satellite system, is operated by which of the following organisations?

Solution: NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), formerly IRNSS, is developed and operated by ISRO to provide accurate position information over India and a region extending about 1,500 km around it.

Question 91Applied Science - Computing

In the context of artificial intelligence, 'machine learning' is best described as:

Solution: Machine learning enables systems to learn patterns from data and improve performance without being explicitly programmed with rules for every case. It is a subset of AI distinct from rule-based expert systems and from physical neuromorphic hardware.

Question 92Health - Biotechnology

Consider the following statements about stem cells: (1) Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent and can differentiate into nearly any cell type. (2) Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) are adult cells reprogrammed to a pluripotent state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Solution: Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, able to form almost any cell type. Induced pluripotent stem cells are mature adult cells genetically reprogrammed back to a pluripotent state, avoiding the ethical concerns of embryonic sources. Both statements are correct.

Question 93International Organisations

Consider the following statements about the International Solar Alliance (ISA): 1. It was jointly launched by India and France. 2. Its headquarters is located in Gurugram (Gurgaon), India. 3. Originally membership was restricted to countries lying fully or partly between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: All three are correct. The ISA was launched by India and France (at COP21, Paris, 2015); its headquarters/secretariat is at the National Institute of Solar Energy campus in Gurugram, India; and originally membership was open to 'sunshine countries' lying wholly or partly between the two tropics (later opened to all UN members).

Question 94Government Schemes

The 'PM-KISAN' scheme, which provides income support to farmers, is implemented by which Union Ministry?

Solution: PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) provides eligible farmer families Rs 6,000 per year in three instalments. It is implemented by the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Question 95International Organisations

Consider the following international organisations and their headquarters: 1. World Trade Organization - Geneva 2. International Monetary Fund - Washington D.C. 3. OPEC - Vienna. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution: All three are correct. The WTO is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland; the IMF (and the World Bank) in Washington D.C., USA; and OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) in Vienna, Austria.

Question 96Indices and Reports

The 'Global Hunger Index' (GHI), which ranks countries on hunger and undernutrition, is published by which of the following?

Solution: The Global Hunger Index is jointly published by Concern Worldwide (Ireland) and Welthungerhilfe (Germany). It uses four indicators - undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting and child mortality - to score countries.

Question 97Constitutional Bodies

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements: 1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 280. 2. It is constituted by the President every five years or earlier. 3. Its recommendations on the distribution of taxes are binding on the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct - the Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280, constituted by the President every fifth year or earlier. Statement 3 is wrong: its recommendations are advisory and NOT binding on the Government.

Question 98Statutory Bodies

The 'NITI Aayog' differs from the erstwhile Planning Commission in which one of the following respects?

Solution: NITI Aayog (set up in 2015 by an executive resolution, like the Planning Commission) is essentially a policy think tank that promotes cooperative federalism and does NOT have powers to allocate funds to states. The Planning Commission, in contrast, used to allocate plan funds to states.

Question 99International Organisations

Which one of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

Solution: INTERPOL (Lyon), WHO (Geneva) and IAEA (Vienna) are correctly matched. The pairing of UNEP with Geneva is incorrect - the UN Environment Programme is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

Question 100Government Schemes

The 'Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)' provides health cover. What is the annual health insurance cover provided per eligible family under the scheme?

Solution: PM-JAY, the world's largest government-funded health assurance scheme, provides health cover of Rs 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalisation to eligible poor and vulnerable families. It is implemented by the National Health Authority.