JEE PYQ

[JEE Advanced 2000] If $b>a$, then $(x-a)(x-b)-1=0$ has

VAVidaara Admin Asked 1mo ago 1 views 1 answer

If $b>a$, then $(x-a)(x-b)-1=0$ has

(a) both roots in $(a,b)$
(b) both roots in $(-\infty,a)$
(c) both roots in $(b,\infty)$
(d) one root in $(-\infty,a)$ and the other in $(b,\infty)$

1 Answer

VAVidaara Admin ✓ Vidaara Team ✓ Accepted · 1mo ago ▲ 0

Correct answer: (d) one root in $(-\infty,a)$ and the other in $(b,\infty)$

$f(a)=f(b)=-1<0$ and the parabola opens upward, so one root is $<a$ and the other $>b$.

JEE Advanced 2000 · Quadratic Equations and Inequations — verified solution by the Vidaara Team.

Log in to post your own answer or join the discussion.

Discussion (0)

No comments yet — start the discussion.

← Back to all questions